01/07/25 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR BOOK
Add Q. 699. Lift produced by an airfoil is the net force developed perpendicular to the
A. cord
B. relative wind
C. longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Answer B
12/26/24 PRIVATE PILOT BOOK
Change Question 386 answer B to 82MPH.
Add the following Questions to the question Bank:
464. (Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude?
A. Makeeff.
B. Turtle Lake.
C. Johnson
465. (Refer to Figure 21, area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?
A. Washburn
B. Johnson
C. Lorentzen.
466. (Refer to Figure 65.) From the flight deck, marking G confirms the aircraft to be
A. near an instrument approach clearance zone.
B. on a runway, about to clear.
C. on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.
467. (Refer to Figure 65.) Sign E is a visual clue that
A. confirms the aircraft’s location on taxiway B.
B. warns the pilot of approaching taxiway B.
C. indicates that “B” holding area is ahead.
468. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
A. Five statute miles from the geographical center of the airport.
B. The number of the airports that lie within the class D airspace.
C. the instrument approach procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
469. (Refer to Figure 25.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
A. Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks.
B. Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.
C. Addison and Dallas Executive.
470. (Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
A. Mode C transponder and omni receiver.
B. Mode C transponder and 2-way radio.
C. Mode C transponder, 2-way radio and DME.
471. When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
A. The airspace reverts to class E or a combination of class E and class G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
B. The airspace designation normally will not change.
C. The airspace remains class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
Answers: 464 A, 465 A, 466, B, 467 A, 468 C, 469 B, 470 B, 471. A.
12/12/2024 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR BOOK
Performance, page 32 Density Altitude.
4th sentence should read- An INCREASE in relative humidity would increase the density altitude at a given airport.
10/11/2024
ALL BOOKS-
Change Class B equipment wording to read-
Class B airspace requires two-way radio, and a 4096-code transponder with altitude encoder and ADSB out.
(IFR operations also require VOR, TACAN or RNAV)." New FAR's also require ADSB out, but the question wording is still showing as published.
Private Book Q 82 - change answer to B.
New wording for Q338
338: All operations within Class C airspace must be in
A: accordance with instrument flight rules.
B: compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
C: an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability and ADFSB out.
- change answer to C.
ALL questions on the Glider Exams are for VFR weather, so your answers will NOT require Navigation Equipment.
PRIVATE PILOT BOOK
Add Question
463. What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
A. It decreases performance.
B. It increases performance.
C. It has no effect on performance.
Answer : A
Change Private Question 384 answer to B
4/26/2024 Flight Instructor Book Page 58
Q95- Change Response C to 8750 feet.
Q96- Change Response A to 5400 feet.
Change Response B to 5750 Feet.
Add Q. 699. Lift produced by an airfoil is the net force developed perpendicular to the
A. cord
B. relative wind
C. longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Answer B
12/26/24 PRIVATE PILOT BOOK
Change Question 386 answer B to 82MPH.
Add the following Questions to the question Bank:
464. (Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude?
A. Makeeff.
B. Turtle Lake.
C. Johnson
465. (Refer to Figure 21, area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and 101°01'W longitude?
A. Washburn
B. Johnson
C. Lorentzen.
466. (Refer to Figure 65.) From the flight deck, marking G confirms the aircraft to be
A. near an instrument approach clearance zone.
B. on a runway, about to clear.
C. on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.
467. (Refer to Figure 65.) Sign E is a visual clue that
A. confirms the aircraft’s location on taxiway B.
B. warns the pilot of approaching taxiway B.
C. indicates that “B” holding area is ahead.
468. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
A. Five statute miles from the geographical center of the airport.
B. The number of the airports that lie within the class D airspace.
C. the instrument approach procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
469. (Refer to Figure 25.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
A. Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks.
B. Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.
C. Addison and Dallas Executive.
470. (Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
A. Mode C transponder and omni receiver.
B. Mode C transponder and 2-way radio.
C. Mode C transponder, 2-way radio and DME.
471. When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
A. The airspace reverts to class E or a combination of class E and class G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
B. The airspace designation normally will not change.
C. The airspace remains class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
Answers: 464 A, 465 A, 466, B, 467 A, 468 C, 469 B, 470 B, 471. A.
12/12/2024 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR BOOK
Performance, page 32 Density Altitude.
4th sentence should read- An INCREASE in relative humidity would increase the density altitude at a given airport.
10/11/2024
ALL BOOKS-
Change Class B equipment wording to read-
Class B airspace requires two-way radio, and a 4096-code transponder with altitude encoder and ADSB out.
(IFR operations also require VOR, TACAN or RNAV)." New FAR's also require ADSB out, but the question wording is still showing as published.
Private Book Q 82 - change answer to B.
New wording for Q338
338: All operations within Class C airspace must be in
A: accordance with instrument flight rules.
B: compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
C: an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability and ADFSB out.
- change answer to C.
ALL questions on the Glider Exams are for VFR weather, so your answers will NOT require Navigation Equipment.
PRIVATE PILOT BOOK
Add Question
463. What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
A. It decreases performance.
B. It increases performance.
C. It has no effect on performance.
Answer : A
Change Private Question 384 answer to B
4/26/2024 Flight Instructor Book Page 58
Q95- Change Response C to 8750 feet.
Q96- Change Response A to 5400 feet.
Change Response B to 5750 Feet.
8/18/2023 Flight Instructor Book
Change Question 468 Answer to C-Page 91
Question 215 is C, some practice exams may have a different answer. Page 53
Question 70 is B, change your master exam answers as needed. Page 90. Also pages 51,53.
Change Question 468 Answer to C-Page 91
Question 215 is C, some practice exams may have a different answer. Page 53
Question 70 is B, change your master exam answers as needed. Page 90. Also pages 51,53.
03/18/2024 PRIVATE BOOK
Page 87 - Answer sheet
Change Answer 292 to A Pages 40,42,87.
Page 87 - Answer sheet
Change Answer 292 to A Pages 40,42,87.
7/16/23 Commercial Book.
Change Q.372 answer to C
Change Question 377 to read:
377. (Refer to Figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground
control when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway.
This is when the aircraft
A. passes the red symbol shown in illustration D.
B.is past the runway side of Illustration H.
C.is past the solid-line side of Illustration G.
Add:
382. If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical
or anti-collision light system, no person may operate
that aircraft
A. after dark.
B. 1 hour after sunset.
C. after sunset to sunrise.
383. (Refer to figure 54. Area 2)
Given: Position- 7 NM north of Byron Airport (C83).
Altitude- 1000ft AGL. Time: 3p.m. local
Flight visibility-1SM
You are VFR approaching Byron Airport for a landing
From the north. You
A. are in violation of the CFRs; you need 3 miles of visibility
under VFR.
B. are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to
remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue for
landing.
C. may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude)
After entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport.
384. (Refer to Figure 54, area 6)
The magenta T/SFC near Oakland Airport indicates
A. The ceiling of Class C airspace is to, but not including the
floor of the overlying Class B airspace.
B. The transition to Class B airspace.
C. Indicates Terminal weather reporting is available.
377. C 382. C. 383 B. 384 A.
Change Q.372 answer to C
Change Question 377 to read:
377. (Refer to Figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground
control when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway.
This is when the aircraft
A. passes the red symbol shown in illustration D.
B.is past the runway side of Illustration H.
C.is past the solid-line side of Illustration G.
Add:
382. If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical
or anti-collision light system, no person may operate
that aircraft
A. after dark.
B. 1 hour after sunset.
C. after sunset to sunrise.
383. (Refer to figure 54. Area 2)
Given: Position- 7 NM north of Byron Airport (C83).
Altitude- 1000ft AGL. Time: 3p.m. local
Flight visibility-1SM
You are VFR approaching Byron Airport for a landing
From the north. You
A. are in violation of the CFRs; you need 3 miles of visibility
under VFR.
B. are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to
remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue for
landing.
C. may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude)
After entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport.
384. (Refer to Figure 54, area 6)
The magenta T/SFC near Oakland Airport indicates
A. The ceiling of Class C airspace is to, but not including the
floor of the overlying Class B airspace.
B. The transition to Class B airspace.
C. Indicates Terminal weather reporting is available.
377. C 382. C. 383 B. 384 A.
01/23/2023 Private Exam Guide - Change Question 338 answer to B
2/24/22 The FAA has recently hired English teachers to review and make changes to the Exam Questions. They are attempting to make the questions more scenario related, and easier to understand, without so much “legalese.” The information is the same, but many (40% or more) of the questions will have new wording and answers. They are also adding many questions to the glider exams that were previously on power exams.
Here is an example:
The old wording for currency questions:
23: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
A: 90 days.
B: 12 calendar months.
C: 24 calendar months.
24: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
A: make and model.
B: category and class, but not type.
C: category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
The new wording is:
Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding
A. 90 days.
B. 60 days.
C. 30 days.
Here is an example:
The old wording for currency questions:
23: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
A: 90 days.
B: 12 calendar months.
C: 24 calendar months.
24: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
A: make and model.
B: category and class, but not type.
C: category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
The new wording is:
Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding
A. 90 days.
B. 60 days.
C. 30 days.
All applicants must establish an FAA Tracking Number (FTN) within IACRA before taking any FAA airman knowledge test. Visit the IACRA website: https://iacra.faa.gov/IACRA/Default.aspx and follow the instructions provided. Once you have your FTN, you can register to take your FAA Airman Knowledge Test. The scheduling website operated by PSI Services LLC: https://faa.psiexams.com/FAA/login
Fundamentals of Instruction Book Corrections-
1/17/2022 -Change Q. 61 to read:
61- When a student engages in daydreaming, it is a defense mechanism of
A - fantasy
B - compensation
C - denial
Answer - A
1/17/2022 -Change Q. 61 to read:
61- When a student engages in daydreaming, it is a defense mechanism of
A - fantasy
B - compensation
C - denial
Answer - A
PRIVATE BOOK CORRECTION
March 1, 2022 - Q 384 - answer C
Feb 2, 2022 -
Change Page 73- Legend - Miscellaneous - Parachute symbol wording to read: Parachute Jumping Area
(See Chart Supplement.)
462. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3 and Legend 1.) For information about parachute jumping operations at Tri-County Airport, refer to
A - notes on the border of the chart.
B - Chart Supplements.
C - the Notice to Air Mission (NOTAM) publication.
Answer B
PAGE 25- Change wording to say "Thermals will begin to form at 1500Z." Delete the comment about strongest thermals - that was another question that was negative learning and was deleted by the FAA at our request. The correct wording regarding weather briefings is: To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, or if no preliminary weather information has been received the pilot should request a standard briefing. Request an abbreviated briefing to update a previous weather briefing. An outlook briefing is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time
QUESTION
290-X
338-B
417-X
435-B
436-X
441-X
450-B
452-C
456-A
Change Question 274 to read:
274: FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
A: ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
B: subscribing to the Federal Register.
C: distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
CFI Books
May 14, 2022
New questions:
697. That portion of the aircraft’s total drag created by the production of lift is called
A. induced drag, and is not affected by changes in airspeed.
B. induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
C. parasite drag, and is greatly affected by airspeed.
698. The G load in a spin would be
A. zero G
B. 0.5 to 1.5 G
C. more than 2 G’s.
Answers: 697 B, 698 B.
Jan 21/2022 - The answer to Q 519 - C
Q 166 - A
Jan 26 2021 -CFI BOOKS - for books published prior to Jan 26, 2021.
Replace CFI books page 91 with this update. Some books were printed with wrong answers starting with Question 446. Just copy, print and replace the entire page 91.
Answers to questions
318 A
319 X
320 C
321 C
346 C
Corrections after Jan 2021 publication-
Page 22 - Scuba Diving - Change 8 hours to 12 hours.
Page 32 - Change wording to read:. Request an abbreviated briefing to update a previous weather briefing.
Page 54 - FIG Exam E 556 -C
FIG Exam F delete Questions 632, 637
Page 77 - delete Q 632,
Page 78 - delete Q 637, change Q. 638 answer B to: 718 MSL.
Here are the latest questions for CFI books:
691. Trigger Temperature refers to
A. The surface temperature required to make the first 4000 feet of the atmosphere dry adiabatic.
B. When thermal strength reaches 200 feet per minute.
C. When the adiabatic rate indicates lift to the inversion.
692. The yellow demarcation bar marking delineates.
A. A runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway, or taxiway that precedes the runway.
B. A hold line from a taxiway to a runway.
C. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.
693. A K-index of 10 indicates:
A. Good soaring in the morning
B. No chance of thunderstorms
C. 10 knot lift in the afternoon.
691 A
692 A
693 B
New Questions added November 2021
Page 14 Number 8. replace second sentence with:
. “Floating” caused by ground effect will be most evident during an approach to at less than half the length of the wingspan above the surface."
695. A glider is usually affected by ground effect at what height above the surface?
A. Three to four times the glider’s wingspan.
B. Twice the wingspan above the surface.
C. Less than half the wingspan above the surface.
696. What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?
A. Delineates entrance to runway from taxiway.
B. Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.
C. Delineates beginning of runway available for landing when pavement is aligned with runway on approach side.
695 C
696 B
Private Pilot Exam (PGL) Questions
1. A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current
A: logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
B: medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
C: endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
2.When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
A: Within 7 days.
B: Within 10 days.
C: Upon request.
3.A sailplane pilot can differentiate between a spin and a spiral dive because in a spiral dive,
A: the speed remains constant.
B: the G loads increase.
C: there is a small loss of altitude in each rotation.
4.Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft’s
A—lift/drag ratio.
B—lifting capacity.
C—aerodynamic balance and controllability.
5.What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
A: For Informational purposes only.
B: They are mandatory.
C: They are voluntary.
6. What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
A: Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
B: A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
C: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
7.What corrective action should the sailplane pilot take during takeoff if the towplane is still on the ground and the sailplane is airborne and drifting to the left?
A: Crab into the wind by holding upwind (right) rudder pressure.
B: Crab into the wind so as to maintain a position directly behind the towplane.
C: Establish a right wing low drift correction to remain in the flightpath of the towplane.
8.What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of Antiauthority?
A: Rules do not apply in this situation.
B: I know what I am doing.
C: Follow the rules.
ANSWERS TO PRIVATE QUESTIONS: 1-B, 2-C, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B, 6-C, 7-B, 8-C
1. A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current
A: logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
B: medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
C: endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
2.When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
A: Within 7 days.
B: Within 10 days.
C: Upon request.
3.A sailplane pilot can differentiate between a spin and a spiral dive because in a spiral dive,
A: the speed remains constant.
B: the G loads increase.
C: there is a small loss of altitude in each rotation.
4.Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft’s
A—lift/drag ratio.
B—lifting capacity.
C—aerodynamic balance and controllability.
5.What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
A: For Informational purposes only.
B: They are mandatory.
C: They are voluntary.
6. What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
A: Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
B: A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
C: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
7.What corrective action should the sailplane pilot take during takeoff if the towplane is still on the ground and the sailplane is airborne and drifting to the left?
A: Crab into the wind by holding upwind (right) rudder pressure.
B: Crab into the wind so as to maintain a position directly behind the towplane.
C: Establish a right wing low drift correction to remain in the flightpath of the towplane.
8.What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of Antiauthority?
A: Rules do not apply in this situation.
B: I know what I am doing.
C: Follow the rules.
ANSWERS TO PRIVATE QUESTIONS: 1-B, 2-C, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B, 6-C, 7-B, 8-C
CFI DAVE (Z3) at BOULDER, CO
Commercial Pilot Exam (CGX) Questions
1. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time?
A: Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 4-hour categorical outlook.
B: Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period.
C: Four times daily and are valid for 12 hours including a 6-hour categorical outlook.
2. To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF
A: transmitter and receiver.
B: transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver.
C: transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver
3. How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A: Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.
B: Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C: With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center
within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
4. Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
A: Detect.
B: Identify.
C: Evaluate.
5. To stop pitch oscillation during a winch launch, the pilot should
A: increase the back pressure on the control stick and steepen the angle of climb.
B: relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb.
C: extend and retract the spoilers several times until the oscillations subside.
6. Which is true regarding the direction in which turns should be made during slope soaring?
A: All reversing turns should be made to the left.
B: All reversing turns should be made into the wind away from the slope.
C: The upwind turn should be made to the left; the downwind turn should be made to the right.
7. GIVEN: Glider’s max auto/winch tow speed - 66 MPH. Surface wind (direct headwind) - 5 MPH. Wind gradient - 4 MPH. When the glider reaches an altitude of 200 feet the auto/winch speed should be
A: 42 MPH.
B: 46 MPH.
C: 56 MPH.
8. Which is true regarding the use of glider tow hooks?
A: The use of a CG hook for auto or winch tows allows the sailplane greater altitude for a given line length.
B: The use of a CG hook for aerotows allows better directional control at the start of the launch than the use of a nose hook.
C: The use of a nose hook for an auto or winch launch reduces structural loading on the tail assembly compared to the use of a CG hook.
9. Which is true regarding the effect on a glider’s performance by the addition of ballast or weight?
A: The glide ratio at a given airspeed will increase.
B: The heavier the glider is loaded, the less the glide ratio will be at all airspeeds.
C: A higher airspeed is required to obtain the same glide ratio as when lightly loaded.
10. When flying into a headwind, penetrating speed is the glider’s
A: speed-to-fly.
B: minimum sink speed.
C: speed-to-fly plus half the estimated wind velocity.
ANSWERS TO COMMERCIAL QUESTIONS: 1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-A, 5-B, 6B, 7-A, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C
1. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time?
A: Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 4-hour categorical outlook.
B: Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period.
C: Four times daily and are valid for 12 hours including a 6-hour categorical outlook.
2. To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF
A: transmitter and receiver.
B: transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver.
C: transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver
3. How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A: Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.
B: Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C: With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center
within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
4. Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?
A: Detect.
B: Identify.
C: Evaluate.
5. To stop pitch oscillation during a winch launch, the pilot should
A: increase the back pressure on the control stick and steepen the angle of climb.
B: relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb.
C: extend and retract the spoilers several times until the oscillations subside.
6. Which is true regarding the direction in which turns should be made during slope soaring?
A: All reversing turns should be made to the left.
B: All reversing turns should be made into the wind away from the slope.
C: The upwind turn should be made to the left; the downwind turn should be made to the right.
7. GIVEN: Glider’s max auto/winch tow speed - 66 MPH. Surface wind (direct headwind) - 5 MPH. Wind gradient - 4 MPH. When the glider reaches an altitude of 200 feet the auto/winch speed should be
A: 42 MPH.
B: 46 MPH.
C: 56 MPH.
8. Which is true regarding the use of glider tow hooks?
A: The use of a CG hook for auto or winch tows allows the sailplane greater altitude for a given line length.
B: The use of a CG hook for aerotows allows better directional control at the start of the launch than the use of a nose hook.
C: The use of a nose hook for an auto or winch launch reduces structural loading on the tail assembly compared to the use of a CG hook.
9. Which is true regarding the effect on a glider’s performance by the addition of ballast or weight?
A: The glide ratio at a given airspeed will increase.
B: The heavier the glider is loaded, the less the glide ratio will be at all airspeeds.
C: A higher airspeed is required to obtain the same glide ratio as when lightly loaded.
10. When flying into a headwind, penetrating speed is the glider’s
A: speed-to-fly.
B: minimum sink speed.
C: speed-to-fly plus half the estimated wind velocity.
ANSWERS TO COMMERCIAL QUESTIONS: 1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-A, 5-B, 6B, 7-A, 8-A, 9-C, 10-C
GPGS CFI Tim studying his PTS
FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR GLIDER (FIG) QUESTIONS
1- Why does increasing speed also increase lift?
A- The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag.
B- The increased impact of the relative wind on an airfoil's lower surface creates a greater amount of air being deflected downward.
C- The increased speed of the air passing over an airfoil's upper surface increases the pressure, thus creating a greater pressure differential between the upper and lower surface.
2- Which statement is true concerning the aerodynamic conditions which occur during a spin entry?
A- After a full stall, both wings remain in a stalled condition throughout the rotation.
B- After a partial stall, the wing that drops remains in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce lift, causing the rotation.
C- After a full stall, the wing that drops continues in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce some lift, causing the rotation.
3- Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's
A- lift/drag ratio.
B- lifting capacity.
C- aerodynamic balance and controllability.
4- Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A- local terrain effects on pressure.
B- stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
C- friction between the wind and the surface.
5- From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A- Ambient lapse rate.
B- Atmospheric pressure.
C- Difference between standard temperature and surface temperature.
6- With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?
A- It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.
B- It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically.
C- It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.
7- When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
A- The airspace designation normally will not change.
B- The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
C- The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
8- If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by
A- VR and a three digit number only.
B- IR or VR and a four digit number.
C- IR or VR and a three digit number.
9- What is the duration of a Flight Instructor Certificate?
A- Indefinite, unless suspended or revoked.
B- 24 months after the month in which it was issued or renewed.
C- Indefinite, as long as the holder has a current pilot and medical certificate appropriate to the pilot privileges being exercised.
10- A written statement from an authorized instructor certifying that an applicant has received the required training in preparation for a practical test must be dated within how many days preceding the date of application?
A- 60
B- 90
C- 120
11- Which training time must be certified by the instructor from whom it was received?
A- Flight training.
B- Flight training and training in a flight training device.
C- All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training.
12- What requirement(s) must an authorized instructor meet in order to prepare a glider applicant for an initial Flight Instructor Certificate rating?
A- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 24 months or given 200 hours of flight training.
B- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 12 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of training.
C- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for at least 24 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of glider training.
13- The preflight action required by regulations relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed, is applicable to
A- IFR flights only.
B- any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
C- any flight conducted for hire or compensation.
14-With respect to using the weight information given in a typical aircraft owner’s manual for computing
gross weight, it is important to know that if items have been installed in the aircraft in addition to the
original equipment, the
A— allowable useful load is decreased.
B— allowable useful load remains unchanged.
C— maximum allowable gross weight is increased.
15-When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
A— Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
B— Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
C— Indicates direction to take-off runway.
666- Refer to Figure 30.)
What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports
the wind as 220° at 30 knots?
A: 19 knots.
B: 23 knots.
C: 30 knots.
667- What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
A: It increases engine performance.
B: It reduces climb performance.
C— It increases takeoff performance.
668- What is pressure altitude?
A: The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B: The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
C: The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
669- When density altitude is beyond capability as indicated on the performance chart,
A: do not attempt takeoff until conditions permit calculations that result in data showing a safe takeoff and climb out.
B: extrapolate the data and attempt takeoff.
C: interpolate the data and attempt takeoff.
670- When viewing a radar summary chart, an echo top entered as 250 [underlined] means the maximum echo top is
A: 2,500 feet AGL
B: 25,000 feet AGL.
C: 25,000 feet MSL
671- Public figures are protected by
A: special use airspace.
B: prohibited areas.
C: temporary flight restriction.
672- When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
A: 0700, 1700, 7000.
B: 1200, 1500, 7000.
C: 7500, 7600, 7700.
673- The “ILS critical area boundary sign” identifies
A: the exit boundary for the runway protected area.
B: the edge of the ILS critical area.
C: the area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.
674- A flight instructor’s certificate, with multi-engine and instrument ratings, expires. As a CFI you know that
A: a checkride in a single-engine airplane will renew all ratings.
B: a checkride in a multi-engine airplane reinstates both single and multi-engine privileges, but not instrument.
C: the applicant must take an instrument checkride in a multiengine airplane to restore all ratings.
675- What is the antidotal phrase for an anti-authority hazardous attitude?
A. Follow the rules.
B. Not so fast. Think first.
C. Do something quickly.
676-Human behavior
A.rarely results in accidents unless deliberate actions are performed.
B.causes three out of four accidents.
C.is well understood, so behavioral induced accidents are exceedingly rare occurrences.
677- When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
A. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
B. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
C. Indicates direction to takeoff runway.
ANSWERS TO FIG QUESTIONS 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-A, 6-C, 7-C, 8-B, 9-B, 10-A, 11-C, 12-C, 13-B, 14-A, 15-A
666-A, 667-B, 668-C, 669-A, 670- C, 671-C, 672-C, 673-B, 674-A, 675-A 676-B, 677-B
1- Why does increasing speed also increase lift?
A- The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag.
B- The increased impact of the relative wind on an airfoil's lower surface creates a greater amount of air being deflected downward.
C- The increased speed of the air passing over an airfoil's upper surface increases the pressure, thus creating a greater pressure differential between the upper and lower surface.
2- Which statement is true concerning the aerodynamic conditions which occur during a spin entry?
A- After a full stall, both wings remain in a stalled condition throughout the rotation.
B- After a partial stall, the wing that drops remains in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce lift, causing the rotation.
C- After a full stall, the wing that drops continues in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce some lift, causing the rotation.
3- Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's
A- lift/drag ratio.
B- lifting capacity.
C- aerodynamic balance and controllability.
4- Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A- local terrain effects on pressure.
B- stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
C- friction between the wind and the surface.
5- From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A- Ambient lapse rate.
B- Atmospheric pressure.
C- Difference between standard temperature and surface temperature.
6- With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?
A- It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.
B- It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically.
C- It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.
7- When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
A- The airspace designation normally will not change.
B- The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
C- The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
8- If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by
A- VR and a three digit number only.
B- IR or VR and a four digit number.
C- IR or VR and a three digit number.
9- What is the duration of a Flight Instructor Certificate?
A- Indefinite, unless suspended or revoked.
B- 24 months after the month in which it was issued or renewed.
C- Indefinite, as long as the holder has a current pilot and medical certificate appropriate to the pilot privileges being exercised.
10- A written statement from an authorized instructor certifying that an applicant has received the required training in preparation for a practical test must be dated within how many days preceding the date of application?
A- 60
B- 90
C- 120
11- Which training time must be certified by the instructor from whom it was received?
A- Flight training.
B- Flight training and training in a flight training device.
C- All flight training, flight simulator training, and ground training.
12- What requirement(s) must an authorized instructor meet in order to prepare a glider applicant for an initial Flight Instructor Certificate rating?
A- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 24 months or given 200 hours of flight training.
B- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 12 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of training.
C- Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for at least 24 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of glider training.
13- The preflight action required by regulations relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed, is applicable to
A- IFR flights only.
B- any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
C- any flight conducted for hire or compensation.
14-With respect to using the weight information given in a typical aircraft owner’s manual for computing
gross weight, it is important to know that if items have been installed in the aircraft in addition to the
original equipment, the
A— allowable useful load is decreased.
B— allowable useful load remains unchanged.
C— maximum allowable gross weight is increased.
15-When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
A— Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
B— Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
C— Indicates direction to take-off runway.
666- Refer to Figure 30.)
What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports
the wind as 220° at 30 knots?
A: 19 knots.
B: 23 knots.
C: 30 knots.
667- What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
A: It increases engine performance.
B: It reduces climb performance.
C— It increases takeoff performance.
668- What is pressure altitude?
A: The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B: The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
C: The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
669- When density altitude is beyond capability as indicated on the performance chart,
A: do not attempt takeoff until conditions permit calculations that result in data showing a safe takeoff and climb out.
B: extrapolate the data and attempt takeoff.
C: interpolate the data and attempt takeoff.
670- When viewing a radar summary chart, an echo top entered as 250 [underlined] means the maximum echo top is
A: 2,500 feet AGL
B: 25,000 feet AGL.
C: 25,000 feet MSL
671- Public figures are protected by
A: special use airspace.
B: prohibited areas.
C: temporary flight restriction.
672- When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
A: 0700, 1700, 7000.
B: 1200, 1500, 7000.
C: 7500, 7600, 7700.
673- The “ILS critical area boundary sign” identifies
A: the exit boundary for the runway protected area.
B: the edge of the ILS critical area.
C: the area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.
674- A flight instructor’s certificate, with multi-engine and instrument ratings, expires. As a CFI you know that
A: a checkride in a single-engine airplane will renew all ratings.
B: a checkride in a multi-engine airplane reinstates both single and multi-engine privileges, but not instrument.
C: the applicant must take an instrument checkride in a multiengine airplane to restore all ratings.
675- What is the antidotal phrase for an anti-authority hazardous attitude?
A. Follow the rules.
B. Not so fast. Think first.
C. Do something quickly.
676-Human behavior
A.rarely results in accidents unless deliberate actions are performed.
B.causes three out of four accidents.
C.is well understood, so behavioral induced accidents are exceedingly rare occurrences.
677- When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
A. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
B. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
C. Indicates direction to takeoff runway.
ANSWERS TO FIG QUESTIONS 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-A, 6-C, 7-C, 8-B, 9-B, 10-A, 11-C, 12-C, 13-B, 14-A, 15-A
666-A, 667-B, 668-C, 669-A, 670- C, 671-C, 672-C, 673-B, 674-A, 675-A 676-B, 677-B
This exam barely makes sense.
FUNDAMENTAL OF INSTRUCTION (FOI) QUESTIONS
This exam is required for the initial flight instructor certificate in addition to the knowledge exam pertaining to gliders, airplanes, etc. Most pilots find it difficult, as its more about learning theory than flying. Recently the FAA introduced 75 new questions. The majority of those taking the exam after these questions were introduced failed the exam. We have all questions covered in our FOI exam guide so you won't have any problem.
Here are a few of the new questions.
1. Which type of assessment is desirable for evaluating a student’s ability to use critical thinking skills in performing real-world tasks?
A— Authentic assessment.
B— Traditional assessment.
C— Practical assessment.
2. The instructor can counteract anxiety in students by
A— teaching students to cope with their fears.
B— avoiding anxiety-causing lessons.
C— explaining how these maneuvers are necessary for safe flight.
3. How does a student who is responding abnormally react to stress?
A— Inadequate or completely absent response.
B— By responding rapidly and exactly often automatically within the limits of their experience.
C— Slow learning.
4. Which would most likely be an indication that a student is reacting normally to stress?
A— Slow learning.
B— Inappropriate laughter or singing.
C— Automatic response to a given situation.
5. A student demonstrates a specific flight maneuver correctly; however, the instructor believes the student does not understand the fundamentals of the maneuver. What should the instructor do?
A— Ask the student to orally explain the maneuver.
B— Ask the student to demonstrate a different maneuver which uses the same fundamentals.
C— Ask the student to demonstrate the same maneuver again.
6. Which of the following is a risk element of ADM?
A— The aircraft.
B— The amount of fuel on board.
C— Any passengers.
7. If a pilot wants to mitigate risk during a cross-country flight in marginal VFR conditions, the pilot could
A— take a pilot who is IFR-rated.
B— continue the flight as planned.
C— stay out of controlled airspace.
8. A pilot’s experience in direct crosswinds greater than 10 knots is an example of which of the fundamental risk elements?
A— The aircraft.
B— The pilot in command.
C— The external pressures.
9. A method for correcting student impatience is for the instructor to
A— present the necessary preliminary training one step at a time, with clearly stated goals for each step.
B— key the instruction to use the interests and enthusiasm students bring with them.
C— avoid assigning impossible or unreasonable goals for the student to accomplish.
10. The accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the four fundamental risk elements that affect safety is called
A— aeronautical decision making.
B— Single Pilot Resource Management.
C— situational awareness.
11. Performance-based objectives consist of which elements?
A— Flight training scenarios, judgment assessment, and maneuver assessment.
B— Cognitive skills, affective skills, and psychomotor skills.
C— Description of the skill or behavior, conditions, and criteria.
ANSWERS TO FOI QUESTIONS 1-A, 2-A, 3-A, 4-C, 5-B, 6-A, 7-A, 8-B, 9-A , 10-C, 11-C
This exam is required for the initial flight instructor certificate in addition to the knowledge exam pertaining to gliders, airplanes, etc. Most pilots find it difficult, as its more about learning theory than flying. Recently the FAA introduced 75 new questions. The majority of those taking the exam after these questions were introduced failed the exam. We have all questions covered in our FOI exam guide so you won't have any problem.
Here are a few of the new questions.
1. Which type of assessment is desirable for evaluating a student’s ability to use critical thinking skills in performing real-world tasks?
A— Authentic assessment.
B— Traditional assessment.
C— Practical assessment.
2. The instructor can counteract anxiety in students by
A— teaching students to cope with their fears.
B— avoiding anxiety-causing lessons.
C— explaining how these maneuvers are necessary for safe flight.
3. How does a student who is responding abnormally react to stress?
A— Inadequate or completely absent response.
B— By responding rapidly and exactly often automatically within the limits of their experience.
C— Slow learning.
4. Which would most likely be an indication that a student is reacting normally to stress?
A— Slow learning.
B— Inappropriate laughter or singing.
C— Automatic response to a given situation.
5. A student demonstrates a specific flight maneuver correctly; however, the instructor believes the student does not understand the fundamentals of the maneuver. What should the instructor do?
A— Ask the student to orally explain the maneuver.
B— Ask the student to demonstrate a different maneuver which uses the same fundamentals.
C— Ask the student to demonstrate the same maneuver again.
6. Which of the following is a risk element of ADM?
A— The aircraft.
B— The amount of fuel on board.
C— Any passengers.
7. If a pilot wants to mitigate risk during a cross-country flight in marginal VFR conditions, the pilot could
A— take a pilot who is IFR-rated.
B— continue the flight as planned.
C— stay out of controlled airspace.
8. A pilot’s experience in direct crosswinds greater than 10 knots is an example of which of the fundamental risk elements?
A— The aircraft.
B— The pilot in command.
C— The external pressures.
9. A method for correcting student impatience is for the instructor to
A— present the necessary preliminary training one step at a time, with clearly stated goals for each step.
B— key the instruction to use the interests and enthusiasm students bring with them.
C— avoid assigning impossible or unreasonable goals for the student to accomplish.
10. The accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the four fundamental risk elements that affect safety is called
A— aeronautical decision making.
B— Single Pilot Resource Management.
C— situational awareness.
11. Performance-based objectives consist of which elements?
A— Flight training scenarios, judgment assessment, and maneuver assessment.
B— Cognitive skills, affective skills, and psychomotor skills.
C— Description of the skill or behavior, conditions, and criteria.
ANSWERS TO FOI QUESTIONS 1-A, 2-A, 3-A, 4-C, 5-B, 6-A, 7-A, 8-B, 9-A , 10-C, 11-C
.